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Poster:
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Jim Carlile |
Date:
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July 01, 2008 02:46:34am |
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Forum:
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Re: Copyright Question |
Correction-- it's late--- instead of Late 19th Century, read after 1911. Nothing before 1911 is still in copyright in the U.K, but after 1911 many works are, because the authors lived past 1945.
Bertrand Russell, George Moore are great examples. Unlike the U.S., most of their works still carry a British copyright. In this country Congress exempted pre-1923 works from abiding by the harmonization, but there's a twilight zone of 1911-1923 English works that online archives still have to worry about.
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Poster:
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anthonypaul |
Date:
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July 01, 2008 08:52:09am |
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Forum:
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Re: Copyright Question |
I am just now working on a British author who died in 1934, whose copyright thus expired in 2004. A few of his books have been reissued in modern facsimile, i.e. not re-set by a publisher, so I don't any justification for his books being only in snippet view.
I wonder if the problem is that no human eye at Google looks at matters like this and makes an informed decision.I suppose there is a mis-conceived computer program that does it automatically, based on heaven-knows-what criteria, that are just wrong in the cases.
Thanks to Internet Archive and PG which does have some of his books, and failing that charity shops and Ebay!
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Poster:
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janun |
Date:
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December 17, 2008 05:13:48am |
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Forum:
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Subject:
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Re: Copyright Question |
"Nothing before 1911 is still in copyright in the U.K"
Can you explain me this affirmation?
Is very important for me.
Thanks.
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